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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

09.06.2025 00:45

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Is there such a thing as "left wing fascism"? If not, what is an example of a political ideology that is often mistakenly labeled as "left wing fascism"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why does the UK Labour MP Jess Philips seem to be such a divisive figure?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why did Democrats echo that Joe Biden was greater than FDR and should be put on Mt Rushmore? Why did Democrats vote for Biden blindly in the primaries and deny he was mentally impaired? Was it the lying media, or are Democrats ignorant and gullible?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.